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disconcision
on May 19, 2018
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Mathematicians Disprove Conjecture Made to Save Bl...
The definition you link states that a function has a discontinuity at a point /in its domain/ if yadda yadda. 0 is not in the domain of f'. See for example:
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1431796/if-a-functi...
thaumasiotes
on May 19, 2018
[–]
That is a question of your personal focus. For example, I'd expect a theorem that applied to "functions from ℝ to ℝ" to apply to f(x) = 1/x unless a specific qualifier was given.
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